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[Katherine Austen]

Combining morphemes: the constituent structure 5950 hats of words Now, we can say that the relationship between words and morphemes is that words are made out of one or more morphemes put together. (An example of a one-morpheme word would be under .) We must ask, then, how this works. Are words just strings of morphemes, or do they have more structure, like sentences do? It turns out that words are like sentences, i.e. they have internal constituent structure. This can be demonstrated with English examples.

The ancestor of most of the languages of Europe, which we will talk about in the lecture on historical linguistics, had an infix /n/ that marked certain verb stems as present. This can still be seen in a few relics in Latin. For example, 'I conquer' is vinco , with an /n/, but 59fifty fitted hats I conquered is vici , without the /n/, as in Julius Caesar's famous quote " Veni, vidi, vici ", 'I came, I saw, I conquered.' English doesn't really have any infixes, except for certain expletives in colloquial expressions like these.

foot mouse man feet mice men ? 59fifty hat In Modern English these are all irregularities. There are no morphological categories that are regularly marked by internal change. But the pattern shown by the verbs is what's leftover from an older system that was once quite regular. If we go back far enough, we find that the languages from which English descends quite regularly marked tense differences by internal changes.Also, as with nouns and verbs, other languages have additional types of inflection on adjectives.

and in a sense it is not even really a compound, but a word that must beige fitted hat be memorized as a unit with a meaning that is completely unpredictable from its parts and is not analyzed as being a head plus something added on. The result is the same: whatever is involved in walkman , the head is not man , and thus no irregular inflectional information can be associated with it, and the regular inflection wins out.President Bush, if these quotes are accurate, quite sensibly decided that -ian should be the default ending, after deletion of a final vowel if present.

So while in Modern English we might say the end of the book , in Old English we would have said thaet ende tha es boc es , where we have endings on the noun and determiner instead of a preposition. Some examples like this aren't all that problematic. There really is a syntactic difference between the two modes of expression. But with the example at hand, there is some evidence, which would take us too far afield, to indicate that certain PPs are not really syntactic phrases best fitted hats at all, but just funny types of morphology.

exactly like nouns with case-endings. There are also examples going the other way. So, one might think that the possessive 's in English is an inflectional suffix that attaches to nouns, just like the plural s . After all, the two follow exactly the same rules of pronunciation, depending on the preceding sound: Noun Noun s (plural) Noun s (possessive) Pronunciation (both) thrush thrushes thrush's iz toy toys toy's z block blocks block's s And neither the plural nor the possessive can be used by itself. So from this point of view.